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Summary of Romans 3:1-20

(An objection): "What advantage is there for a Jew? What good is there in circumcision?" (Paul replies): "There are many advantages in every way. First, God's revelation was entrusted to them."

(Problem): "What if some refused to believe or were unfaithful? Will that mean God will not be faithful?" (Reply): "Heavens no! God is faithful. (As the Psalmist says): 'Every man is lying' and as a result, 'God is declared just in His words, and He is victorious when called to answer for His actions.'"

(Objection): "If the fact that we are unrighteous gives God a chance to show He is righteous (by punishing us), what shall we say? Shall we say God is wrong in punishing us (to speak in a human way)?" (Reply): "Heavens no! If that were the case, how could He judge the world?"

(Objection reappears): "If the truth of God abounded in my lie, resulting in His glory, why am I still condemned as a sinner?" (Reply): "Then it would be the same as what they charge me, Paul, with: that I said we may do evil so that good may come. No! Their condemnation is just!"

(Objection by a Jew): "What then? Do we excel (others)?" (Reply): "Not at all. For we have already shown that all, both Jews and Greeks are under sin. Scripture says: No one is just, not one. No one understands or seeks God. All have gone down together and have become useless. There is no one who does good, not even one. Their throat is like an open grave. With their tongues they acted with deceit. Vipers' poison is under their lips. Their mouth is full of curses and bitterness. They are quick to shed blood. Calamity and misery are in their ways. They do not know the path of peace, or keep the fear of God before their eyes."

We know that what Scripture says, it says to those who are bound by the law. The result is that no one can have anything to say in reply. The whole world is found guilty in the eyes of God. For on the basis of works of the law, no one will be just before Him. For through the law there is [only] knowledge of sin.

Comments on 3:1-20

This chapter opens with a series of imaginary objections and replies. First, the objector asks what advantage is there in being a Jew -- after what Paul has said against them in chapter 2. Paul says there is much advantage in every way. He starts out to give a list, saying "first." But he never gives a second or third. He was dictating these letters, must have forgotten where he was.

But we notice he says one great advantage the Jews had was divine revelation -- which included having the law. This is quite a contrast with his usual dim words about the law. But we recall again, Paul has two ways of looking at the law: focused and factual. In the focused way, the law gives nothing but knowledge of what is right or wrong, but no strength. So people must fall. But in the factual picture, divine help is offered independently of the law. Those who use it are given blessings, and rescued from falling into the automatic penalties that lie in the nature of things. (See St. Augustine, Confessions 1.12: "Every disordered soul is its own penalty.")

Paul asks: If people are unfaithful, will God also be unfaithful? He replies: Heavens no! (Thus we chose to translate his "Let it not be.") It means: God will keep the covenant, no matter what people do. But that covenant is two-sided (cf. Deuteronomy 30:19). If people do well, He will reward; if they sin, He will punish.

Then Paul adds something imaginative. He cites Psalm 116:11 and 51:6 with this picture: God is called to court as it were to see if He is acting justly. It is determined that people are sinners (they lie: cf. our comments on "lie" in Romans 1:25 above). God punishes. He is simply carrying out moral righteousness in doing that. So God is vindicated, declared righteous. (We recall again our comments on the "righteousness of God" in Romans 1:17).

Now comes a strange objection -- which Paul states twice in slightly different words. He does not fill in the sentences -- the folly of the objection would show clearly then. He imagines a sinner saying: I sinned, and God punished me. But then God should not object to me, for I gave Him a chance to show He is just by punishing me! After the second try of the objection Paul says that if the objector were right, we could make the end justify the means -- as some charge Paul is doing!

Finally a Jew asks whether Jews excel or not? (Could also translate as passive: Are we excelled?) Paul says they do not excel. He says he has already shown that all are hopeless. He did that in all of Romans up to this point, in which he showed first that gentiles are hopeless morally, and then that Jews are the same. So he sums up: "All are under sin." The implication is: they must then turn to faith for justification -- they cannot make it by keeping the law, for no one keeps it. (We recall again that Paul did this only by a heavy use of focusing).

Paul next gives a string of Scriptural texts: Psalm 14:1-3, 5:10, 140:4, 10:7; Isaiah 59:7-8; Psalm 36:2. This is a literary form called "Testimonia," a series of texts, probably a standard collection, to help preachers and catechists. Of course, Semitic exaggeration is strong here. (And this is poetry too). For Paul knows not all are such terrible sinners. In fact, in Philippians 3:6 he claims he, before his conversion, kept the law perfectly. And Luke 1:6 says the same of Zechariah and Elizabeth. And the Old Testament praises David so highly. We add too that 1 Corinthians 6:11 says not all the Corinthians committed all the great sins Paul had just enumerated.

Next, Paul again sums up and says the whole world is found guilty. No flesh is justified on the basis of works of the law. We think too of Psalm 143:2: "Before you no man alive is just." Paul then adds, almost in the same words we use in speaking of focusing: "From the law comes [only] knowledge of sin." He means: it gives knowledge only, not strength. So people must fall.

Summary of Romans 3:21-31

But now, in the new regime of Christ, the concern of God for moral rightness has been made clear, a righteousness which the law and the prophets testify that He has. This is the [work of His] righteousness manifested to save all who have faith in Jesus, whether Jew or Greek. [Sense: God's concern for moral rightness is shown by His sending His Son to rebalance the objective order and save those who have faith in Jesus, whether Jew or Greek]. All have sinned, and need God's power.

Justification is given without charge [without being earned], by grace, through the redemption worked by Christ Jesus. God publicly set Him up as the new propitiatory of atonement. [The fruit of His atonement is communicated to us] through faith in His blood. By this atonement wrought by Jesus, God shows His concern for righteousness. For in the time of His patience, the Old Testament, He passed over sins [in that He did not provide a complete rebalance for them]. But now His righteousness is apparent, [for He has provided for the full rebalance of the objective order]. So He is seen as righteous, and makes righteous those who depend on faith in Jesus.

In view of this, who is there who can boast that he has earned his salvation? No one. Boasting is made impossible since we are not in the regime of works [where people tried to earn]. No, we are in the regime of faith [in which we get justification without earning it, by faith]. For it is through faith that one becomes justified, without the works of the law.

So we can see that God acts like the God not only of the Jews, but also of the gentiles. For it is one and the same God who makes the Jews righteous on the basis of faith, and gentiles also through faith.

Does what we have said mean that moral righteousness is not fulfilled? Heavens no! Rather, it is well established.

Comments on 3:21-31

Commentators often dilute the meaning of this section, especially verses 24-26. To see this, let us recall some background.

In commenting on Romans 1:17 we said that God's righteousness means His concern for what is morally right. The gods of Greece and Rome, and Mesopotamia too, were practically amoral, rather than immoral. If we said immoral, we would mean they violated morality, but knew they were doing so, yet could get away with it. But when we say they were amoral, it means they act as if there is no such thing as morality. In contrast, the God of Scripture is "morally righteous" (Hebrew sadiq, as Psalm 11:7 says) and loves what is morally right (sedaqoth).

Pope Paul VI, in the doctrinal introduction to his document on indulgences of January 1967, said this: "Every sin brings with it a disturbance of the universal order, which God arranged in His inexpressible wisdom and infinite love. . . . So it is necessary for the full remission and reparation of sins . . . not only that friendship with God be restored by a sincere conversion of heart, and that the offence against His wisdom and goodness be expiated, but that all the goods, both individual and social, and those that belong to the universal order, lessened or destroyed by sin, be fully reestablished, either through voluntary reparation . . . or through suffering penalties." An ancient Rabbi, Simeon Ben Eleazar⁸ gives a helpful comparison: "He [any sinner] has committed a transgression. Woe on him! He has tipped the scales to the side of debt for himself and for the world." It means this: A sinner takes from one pan of the scales something he has no right to take: the scale is out of balance. It is basically the Holiness of God, loving all that is right, that wants it rebalanced. How do it? If the sinner stole property, he could begin to rebalance by giving it back. If he stole a pleasure, he can begin to rebalance by giving up some other pleasure. But these are only beginnings, for even one mortal sin has an infinity about it: the Person offended, God, is infinite. So if the Father willed complete rebalance, that could be done only by sending a divine Person to become man.

The Father actually did that, He sent His Son. In the old law there was a propitiatory, the golden plate with the cherubim on it, on top of the Ark of the Covenant. Once a year, on the day of atonement, the High Priest would sprinkle the blood of the sacrificed animal on it, to make atonement for the sins of Israel of the past year.⁹ Christ is the new propitiatory in His blood, to make atonement.

The shallow view of these verses would make Christ's death seem like just a liturgical ceremony, using His blood instead of the blood of an animal. But then we should ask: Why something so painful for a ritual thing? The truth is: He gave up so much and suffered so much to rebalance what the sinner had done in taking what he had no right to. This rebalanced the objective order, as the Holiness of God willed. (We stress Holiness, since that is the center, rather than His justice, which is, of course involved too. But it is primarily His Holiness that loves all that is right). This was the price of redemption (cf. 1 Corinthians 6:20 and 7:23). It was not paid to Satan, the captor of our race in the imagery of the price of redemption. And of course it was not paid to the Father, who was not the captor. But it was paid to rebalance the objective order, as the Holiness of the Father willed.

During the Old Testament times we could say that God did not show this concern or His desire to fully rebalance. Yes, He did at times punish sin dramatically and openly. But those penalties did not fully rebalance. In that sense Paul could say that God "passed over" sins during the Old Testament times. Only the redemption by Jesus fully rebalanced the objective order.

The fruit of that redemption of His is given us through faith in Him. Then we have not earned it -- but He earned it, at a terrible cost. In this sense Paul can say in the last line of this section that this picture we are seeing did not wipe out concern for moral rightness (the question could be raised since sinners get the justification without earning it). But God did show His concern since He did provide for the full rebalance by the infinite value of the death of His Son.

Paul says that the fact that we get justification without earning it leaves us no room to boast. If we had earned it ourselves, there could have been an opening for boasting. But actually, we are justified by faith, without works.

When Paul asks if God is the God of both Jew and gentile he has the following in mind: If He had made salvation depend on the Mosaic law, the gentiles would be left out of salvation, and God would seem not to care for them, not to be their God. But actually, He did take care of them, providing justification by faith. How that worked is what we saw in our comments on 2:14-16 above.