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(1) Then what advantage has the Jew? Or what is the profit of circumcision? (2) Much in every way. First indeed, because to them are entrusted the oracles of God. (3) What if some were unfaithful? Does their faithlessness nullify the faithfulness of God? Let it not be! (4) But God is true though every man be false, as it is written, "That thou mayest be justified in thy words, and prevail when thou art judged." (5) But if our injustice serves to show the justice of God, what shall we say? Is God unjust to inflict wrath on us? (I speak according to man.) (6) Let it not be! Otherwise how could God judge the world? (7) But if the truth of God as abounded in my lie to his glory, why am I still being judged as a sinner? (8) And why not—as we are slandered and as some claim we say—do evil that good may come? Their condemnation is just. After showing that Judaism, which involved receiving the Law and circumcision, is not sufficient for salvation without the Law’s observance, through which the Gentile without external Judaism and circumcision obtains the fruit of each [n. 163 and 210], he now objects to his own doctrine: 129 first, he presents the objection; secondly, he answers it, there [v. 2; n. 248] at Much in every way. 247. First, he objects: If what I say is so, i.e., that the true Jew and true circumcision are not something outward but inward in the heart, then what advantage has the Jew, i.e., what has been given to him more than to others? It seems to be nothing. But this is not fitting, since the Lord had said: "The Lord, your God, has chosen you to be a people for his own possession" (Dt 7:6). Or what is the value of circumcision, i.e., outward? It seems from his previous teaching that there is no value. But this is not fitting, since it was imposed by God, Who says: "I am the Lord, your God, who teaches you unto profit" (Is 48:17). 248. Then when he says Much in every way (v. 2) he answers the objection: first, in regard to Judaism’s prerogative; secondly, in regard to the value of circumcision, in chapter 4, there [n. 322] at What therefore shall we say? In regard to the first he does two things: first, he shows Judaism’s prerogative; secondly, he rejects their boasting over the Gentiles, there [v. 9; n. 271] at What then?. In regard to the first he does three things: first, he states his position; secondly, he explains it, there [v. 2b; n. 250] at First indeed; thirdly, he excludes an objection, there [v. 3; n. 251] at What if some. 130 249. First, therefore, he says: the question is raised what advantage has the Jew. The advantage is both quantitative, which is indicated when he says, much, and numerical, which is indicated when he says, in every way. For they have an advantage both in contemplating divine matters: "In Judah God is known" (Ps 76:1) and in the provision of temporal things: "He has not dealt thus with any other nation" (Ps 147:20). They have further advantages relating to their ancestors, to the promises and to their offspring: "They are Israelites, and to them belong the sonship, the glory, the covenant" (Rom 9:4). In each of these there is no small advantage, but great and important ones, which are summed up when he says, much. For man’s greatest good lies in knowing God, in clinging to God and in being instructed by God: "Blessed is the man whom thou dost teach out of thy law" (Ps 93:12). 250. Then when he says First indeed he explains his statement, saying: First indeed, i.e., the chief advantage is that to them are entrusted the oracles of God, being His friends: "I have called you friends" (Jn 15:15). This is important, because the oracles of God are trustworthy: "The ordinances of the Lord are true and righteous altogether" (Ps 19:9) and pleasant: "How sweet are thy words to my taste" (Ps 119:103) and useful for avoiding sin: "I have laid up thy word in my heart, that I may not sin against thee" (Ps 119:11). 251. Then when he says What if some were unfaithful (v.3) he excludes an objection: first, he presents it; 131 secondly, he rejects it by showing its consequences, there [v. 3b; n. 253] at Does their faithlessness; thirdly, by showing that the consequence is unfitting, there [v. 4b; n. 254] at But God is true. 252. Someone could belittle the Jews’ prerogative by citing their ingratitude, through which they would seem to have set aside the value of God’s message. Hence he says, what if some were unfaithful? Does this show that the Jew has no advantage, especially in the light of 2 Pt (2:21): "It would have been better for them never to have known the way of righteousness than after knowing it to turn back from the holy commandments delivered to them." For they did not believe the Lawgiver: "They had no faith in his promises" (Ps 106:24) or the prophets: "They are a rebellious house" (Ez 2:6) or the Son of God: "If I tell the truth, why do you not believe me?" (Jn 8:46). 253. Then when he says Does their faithlessness (v3b) he excludes this objection by showing the unsuitable conclusion it engenders. For if the Jews’ prerogative were taken away on account of the unbelief of some, it would follow that man’s unbelief would nullify God’s faithfulness -- which is an unacceptable conclusion. This is what he says: Does their unfaithfulness, namely, of those who have not believed, nullify the faithfulness of God? This can be understood in two ways: in one way, as referring to the faith by which one believes in God. For the faith of believers is not nullified by those who have not believed, because the evil in some members of society does not nullify the good in other members: "Some of them he blessed and exalted and some of them he made holy and 132 brought near to himself; some he cursed and brought low, and he turned them out of their place" (Si 33:12). This is against those of whom Augustine says in The Letter to the People of Hippo: "What other motive inspires them and what else do they discuss save that when a bishop or cleric or monk or nun falls, they believe that all are such, but not all can be exposed?" In another way, it can be understood as referring to the faith with which God is faithful in keeping His promises: "He who promised is faithful" (Heb 10:23). This faithfulness would be nullified, if it happened that the Jews had no advantage, just because some have not believed. For God promised to multiply that people and make it great: "I will multiply your descendants" (Gen 22:l6). 254. Then when he says, Let it not be!, he shows that it is unfitting for God’s faithfulness to be nullified on account of men’s unbelief. First, he gives a reason for this; secondly, he cites a text, there [4b; n. 256] at As it is written; thirdly, be excludes a false understanding of this text, there [v. 5; n. 262] at But if our injustice. 255. The reason is based on the fact that God in Himself is true: "The Lord is the true God" (Jer 10:10); "This is the true God and life eternal" (1 Jn 5:20); though every man be false: "I said in my consternation, ‘Men are all a vain hope’" (Ps 116:11). Hence, it is plain that man’s mendacity or unbelief in not adhering to the truth does not nullify God’s truth or faithfulness. This is easier to understand, if we consider that truth implies agreement between thing and understanding. But things are in agreement with our understanding in one way 133 and with God’s in another way. For our intellect derives its knowledge from things; consequently, the cause and measure of our truth stems from the thing’s being. For an opinion is called true or false depending on whether the thing is as stated or is not. Hence, our understanding can be true or it can be false, for it can be in agreement or disagreement. But whatever is open to being or not being needs someone acting to make it be; otherwise, it continues not to be. For as air without something illuminating it remains dark, so our intellect by itself, unless it is enlightened by the first truth, continues in falseness. Hence, of himself every man is false in his intellect and is true only in virtue of participating in the divine truth: "Send out thy light and thy truth" (Ps 43:3). The divine intellect, on the other hand, is the cause and measure of things. For this reason it is of itself unfailingly true, and everything else is true inasmuch as it conforms to that intellect. Similarly, considering truth on the part of the thing, man of himself does not have truth, because his nature is convertible into nothing. Only the divine nature, which is not produced from nothing or convertible into nothing, has of itself truth. 256. Then when he says, As it is written, he proves his statement on the authority of a text in Ps 51 (v.4): That thou mayest be justified in thy words and prevail when thou art judged. How this is to the point can be gathered from considering what the Psalmist had said just ahead of it For he says just before this, "Against thee, thee only, have I sinned," and then: "So that thou art justified in thy sentence and blameless in thy judgment." For God through the prophet Nathan had promised David that He would establish his kingdom forever in his seed, as is gathered from 2 Sam (7:16). But later, when he fell into serious 134 sin, namely, adultery and murder (2 Sam 11:2 ff), some said that on account of these sins God would not keep the promises made to him. 257. Hence, the Psalmist’s intention bears on two things. First, that God’s justice, which involves keeping His promises, is not changed on account of sin. Touching on this he says, that thou mayest be justified in thy words, i.e., that You may be shown just in your words, since You do not disregard them because of my sins: "All the words of my mouth are righteous" (Pr 8:8); "The Lord is faithful in all his words" (Ps 145:13). Secondly, that God’s promise imitates men’s judgment. And this is what he says, and prevail, namely, by keeping Your promise, when thou art judged, namely, by men, that on account of my sins You did not keep Your promises: "Do not be overcome by evil, but overcome evil with good" (Rom 12:21), which is said to men. Accordingly, it is truer of God. 258. It should be noted that God’s promise to David was to be fulfilled in Christ’s incarnation. Hence it was a predestinative prophecy, in which something is promised as destined to be fulfilled in every way; whereas something promised or foretold by a prophecy of warning is not predicted as destined to be fulfilled in every way but according to men’s merits, which can change. Therefore, if the promise made to David had not been fulfilled, it would have been prejudicial to God’s justice; whereas the non-fulfillment of a promise made through a prophecy of warning is not prejudicial to God’s justice, but indicates a change in deserts. Hence it is written in Jer (18:7): "If at any time I declare concerning a nation or a 135 kingdom that I will pluck up and break down and destroy it, and if that nation turns from its evil, I will repent of the evil that I intended to do to it." Therefore, it is plain, according to this sense, that man’s sin does not exclude God’s faithfulness. 259. Other senses of this text are presented in the Gloss [of Lombard, col. 1352], but they are not closely related to the Apostle’s intention. The first is that these words are linked with the words, "Wash me more thoroughly from my iniquity" (v. 4) to the end "that you may be justified," i.e., appear just, "in thy words," in which You promised pardon to sinners not only in Ezekiel, because these words antedated that, but also in Lev (26:41): "If they make amends for their iniquity, then I will remember my covenant," and Dt (30:1): "If, lead by repentance of heart, you turn to God, the Lord your God will bring you back, and have compassion on you." Thus "may you prevail when you are judged" by men that you ought not pardon me. 260. Secondly these words are connected with the verse, "Against you only have I sinned," i.e., in comparison with you who alone are just. And this is what he means when he says "that you may be justified," i.e., by you may appear just in comparison to me and other sinners: "The Lord is just, and loves justice" (Ps 10:8), and this not only in deeds but also in your words, which is the greatest of all according to Jam 3(:2), "If anyone does not offend in word." "And that you may overcome when you are judged," i.e., when you are compared to anyone else in judgment: "Judge between me and my vineyard" (Is 5:3). 261. Third, these words are referred to Christ, Who alone is without sin: "He committed no sin; no guile was found on his lips" (2 Pt 2:22) and is, therefore, justified in 136 His words as compared to all men. And you prevail over sin, death and the devil: "The Lion of the tribe of Judah has conquered" (Rev 5:5), when you are judged unjustly by Pilate: "Thy cause has been judged as that of the wicked" (Jb 36:17). 262. Then when he says, But if our wickedness, he excludes a false understanding of the text he cited. For someone might understand these words according to the sense that "that" [ut] would be taken in a causal, not a consecutive, sense. Then it would follow that man’s sin would be directly ordained to commend God’s justice. But the Apostle shows that this is false. Hence he says that "that" is used consecutively, on the ground that David sinned and then the manifestation of divine justice followed, but not causally, as if a man’s sin commended God’s justice. He proves this by showing that it leads to something unfitting in two ways: first, on the part of divine judgment; secondly, on the part of human judgment [v. 7; n. 267]. In regard to the first he does three things: first, he presents the false sense; secondly, he shows that something unfitting follows from this, there [v. 5b; n. 264] at What then shall we say? Is God unjust; thirdly, he shows that it is unfitting, there [v. 6; n. 265] at Let it not be! 263. It should be noted that above (v.4) the Apostle had made two comparisons; in the first he compared divine truth to human falsity when he said: "Let God be true, though every man be false"; in the second, God’s justice to human sin, in the words of Ps 137 51 (v.4), where it is said: "Against thee, thee only, have I sinned.... That thou mayest be justified." In regard to the first comparison he says: If these words are taken to mean that our iniquity directly commends God’s justice, what shall we say? In other words, we could not accept the inconvenience that follows. For sin is not necessary for God to have His justice commended: "He does not desire a multitude of faithless and useless children" (Si 16:1). 264. He expresses the inconvenience that follows, when he says: Is God who inflicts wrath on us, i.e., vengeance for sin, unjust? For this follows from the supposition. For if sin were directly ordained to commending justice, it would not be deserving of punishment but of reward. Consequently, God would be unjust in punishing men for sin, contrary to what is stated in Dt (32:4): "God is faithful and without iniquity." 265. He rejects this inconvenience, when he says, Let it not be that is God unjust. I speak according to man, i.e., I say these words not from my understanding but from that of a man in error, as is stated in 1 Cor (3:3): "For while there is jealousy and strife among you, are you not of the flesh?" 266. He shows that this must not be admitted, adding: For then, namely, if God is unjust, how could God judge the world, i.e., how could He be the universal and supreme judge of the world? For it is necessary that the first and highest item in every class be unerring, just as the first mover is unchangeable. Hence it is written in Ps 96 (v.13): "I will judge the world with righteousness." 138 A like argument is presented in Jb (34:12): "Of a truth God will not do wickedly, and the Almighty will not pervert justice. Who gave him charge over the earth and who laid on him the whole world?" In other words: If He were not to judge justly, it would be necessary to suppose that someone else is judge of the world. 267. Then when he says For if the truth (v.7) he shows the same on the part of human judgment. He does three things: first, he presents the false understanding of the above words; secondly, he shows the inconvenience that follows, there [v. 7b; n. 269] at Why am I sill; thirdly, he shows that it is inconvenient, there [v. 8b; n. 270] at Their condemnation. 268. He expresses the false understanding according to the comparison of divine truth to human falsity, when he says: But if through my falsehood, i.e., on account of my falsity, God’s truthfulness, being manifested, abounds to his glory, man’s falsity directly obtains an increase of glory. This is contrary to what is stated in Jb (13:7): "Does God need you to speak deceitfully for him?" 269. Then he adds two inconveniences that follow: one is that man should not be regarded a sinner for lying, on the ground that it is directly ordained to God’s glory. And this is what he says: Why am I still, i.e., even now, being condemned by men as a sinner for being false: "Whereas wickedness is fearful, it bears witness of its condemnation" (Wis 17:8), because sinners are condemned by the judgment of all. 139 The other inconvenience is that it lends support to the false accusation leveled against the apostles. For they preached that through the abounding grace of Christ the debt for an abundance of sins was paid, as is stated below: (5:20): "Where sin increased, grace abounded all the more." For this the apostles were blasphemed, as if preaching that men should do evil in order that good be obtained. This would follow, if man’s falsehood directly commended God’s grace and truth. Therefore, he says: and why not do evil by sinning and teaching falsehood, that good may come, i.e., that God’s truth and justice be commended, as some people slanderously charge us: "When slandered, we try to conciliate" (1 Cor 4:13) with saying by twisting our words: "Which the ignorant and unstable twit to their own destruction" (2 Pt 3:16). 270. He rejects these inconveniences when he says, Their condemnation is just, i.e., those who do evil that good may come. For just as it is not correct to deduce truth from falsity, so it is wrong to reach a good end through evil means: "Why does the way of the wicked prosper? Why do all who are treacherous thrive?" (Jer 12:1). Or their, namely, those who accuse us of this falsely, condemnation is just. For perverters of sacred doctrine are justly condemned: "If anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues described in this book" (Rev 22:18).
271. After showing the Jews’ advantage over the Gentiles so far as God’s blessings are concerned [n. 248], the Apostle now rejects their vainglory, by which they preferred themselves to Gentiles converted to the faith. First, he states his point; secondly, be proves it, there [v. 9b; n. 274] at For we have charged. 272. First, therefore, he says: I have asked what advantage has the Jew. The first is that God’s words were delivered to them. What then shall we Jews say to converts to 141 the faith? Are we Jews any better off than Gentiles converted to the faith? For this was a matter discussed among them: "A dispute also rose among them, which of them was to be regarded as the greatest" (Lk 23:24). He answers this when he says, No, not at all. 273. But this seems to be at variance with an earlier statement (v. 2), which said that their advantage was much in every way. The gloss [of Lombard, col. 1356] explains that in the first statement the Apostle was thinking of the Jews in the time of the Law, but now he is speaking of the time of grace because, as is written in Col (3:11): "In Christ there cannot be Greek and Jew, circumcised and uncircumcised," since these make no difference so far as the state of grace is concerned. But this explanation does not seem to be altogether in keeping with the Apostle’s intention, because later he will show that even while they were under the Law, they were under the power of sin, just as the Gentiles were, and even more so: "This is Jerusalem; I have set her in the center of the nations, with countries round about her. And she has wickedly rebelled against my ordinances and become more wicked than these countries" (Ez 5:5). Hence, it seems that above he was showing the excellence of God’s blessings; consequently, he did not say that the Jew was more excellent, but that something greater had been conferred on the Jew. Here he is rejecting the notion that they are excellent persons, because in spite of receiving God’s blessings they did not use them properly. 274. Then when he says For we have charged (v. 9b) he establishes his points: first, that the Jews do not excel the Gentiles so far as the state of sin is concerned; 142 secondly, so far as the state of justice is concerned, there [v. 2; n. 299] at But now apart from the law. He establishes the first in two ways: first, from what has been stated above; secondly, from an authority, there [v. 10; n. 176] at As it is written. 275. First, therefore, he says: We have already charged, i.e., we have supported with reasons, that Jews and Greeks, i.e., Gentiles, are all under the power of sin: "From the sole of the foot even to the head there is no soundness in him" (Is 1:6). For he showed, first of all, that the Gentiles suppressed the truth they knew by their wickedness and unrighteousness; secondly, that the Jews, after receiving the Law, dishonored God by transgressing it. 276. Then when he says, As it is written, he establishes his point by the authority of the Psalmist: first, he quotes him; secondly, he explains, there [v. 19; n. 290] at Now we know. In regard to the first he does two things: first, he mentions sins of omission; secondly, sins of commission, there [v. 13; n. 282] at Their throat. He touches on the sins of omission in two ways: first, by removing the sources of good works; secondly, by removing the good works themselves, there [v. 12; n. 280] at All have turned aside. 143 277. Now there are three sources or principles that make a work good: one of these pertains to the righteousness of the work, namely, justice, which he says is lacking: no one is just: "The godly man has perished from the earth; and there is none upright among men" (Mic 7:2). No one is just can be interpreted in three ways: in one way as meaning that no one is just within himself and of himself, but of himself everyone is a sinner and it is owing to God that he is righteous: "The Lord, a God merciful and gracious, forgiving iniquity and transgression and sin, but who will by no means clear the guilty" (Ex 34:6). In another way it means that no one is just in every way but has some sin according to Pr (20:9): "Who can say, ‘I have made my heart clean’?" and Ec (7:20): "Surely there is not a righteous man on earth who does good and never sins." In a third way it can be understood as referring to the wicked members of a populace, among which no one is just. For it is the custom of Scripture sometimes to speak of an entire populace in terms of its evil members and sometimes of its good members as in Jer (26:8 ff) where it is stated that when Jeremiah finished saying everything the Lord had commanded him to say to the entire populace, the priests and prophets and the entire people took hold of him and said that he would die the death. Then it is added: "Then the princes and all the people said to the priests and prophets: ‘This man does not deserve the sentence of death.’" (Jer 26:16). However, the first two meanings seem to be more in keeping with the Apostle’s intent; and the same must be said for the following. 144 278. The second element that makes a work good is intellectual discernment, whose absence is declared when he says, no one understands: "They have neither knowledge nor understanding" (Ps 82:5); "He would not understand" (Ps 36:3). 279. The third element is a right intention, whose absence is described when he says, no one seeks after God, namely, by directing his intention toward Him: "It is time to seek the Lord that he may come and rain salvation upon you" (Hos 10:12). 280. Then he removes the good works themselves. First, he cites offenses against the divine Law when he says, all have turned aside, namely, from regulation by divine Law: "They have all turned to their own way" (Is 56:11). Secondly, failure to pursue the end; hence he adds, together they have become unprofitable. For we call unprofitable whatever does not attain its end. Therefore, when men turn from God for Whom they were made, they are rendered unprofitable: "The brood of the ungodly will be of no use" (Wis 4:3). Thirdly, he excludes the good works themselves, when he adds, no one does good: "They are skilled in doing evil, but how to do good they know not" (Jer 4:22). 281. He adds, not even one. This can be taken exclusively, to mean: except the one who alone did good by redeeming the human race: "One man among a thousand I found, but a woman among all these I have not found" (Ec 7:28). Or it can be taken inclusively, to mean: there is not even one pure man doing good, i.e., what is perfect: "Search the squares [of Jerusalem] to see if you can find a man, one who does justice and seeks truth" (Jer 5:1). 282. Then when he says Their throats (v. 13) he mentions the sins of commission: 145 first, sins of speech; secondly, sinful deeds, there [v. 15; n. 287] at their feet are swift. The sins of the heart can be gathered from these. 283. In regard to sins of speech he mentions four things. First, readiness and foulness, when he says: their throat is an open grave. For an open grave has two features. For it is ready to receive the dead. According to this, a man’s throat is said to be an open grave, when it is prepared to utter deadly remarks in the manner described by Jer (5:16): "Their quiver is like an open tomb." Secondly, it exudes a foul odor: "You are like white-washed tombs, which outwardly appear beautiful, but within they are full of dead men’s bones and all uncleanness" (Mt 23:27). Therefore, a person from whose mouth proceeds the foul odor of filthy remarks has a throat which is an open grave: "Fire and smoke and sulphur issued from their mouths" (Rev 19:17). 284. Secondly, in regard to sins of speech, he touches on deception when he says, they use their tongues to deceive, having one thing in their heart and another in their words: "Their tongues is a deadly arrow; it speaks deceitfully" (Jer 9:8). 285. Thirdly, he mentions the havoc wrought by their words, when he says: The venom of asps is under their lips, because they utter words which kill their neighbor either spiritually or bodily: "Their wine is the poison of serpents and the cruel venom of asps" (Dt 32:33). 286. Fourthly, he designates the abundance of these sins when he says: Their mouth is full of curses and bitterness, because they have a plentiful supply of curses, for 146 they curse in slandering others, contrary to what he says below (12:14): "Bless and do not curse them". And bitterness, inasmuch as they do not hesitate to say insulting words to their neighbor’s face, being provoked by bitterness, contrary to what is written in Eph (4:31): "Let all bitterness be put away from you." 287. Then when he says their feet are swift (v.15) he touches on sinful deeds, in regard to which he mentions three things. First, readiness to do wickedly. Hence he says, Their feet are swift, i.e., their feelings, to shed blood, i.e., to commit any serious sin, because among the sins committed against our neighbor, murder is the most grievous: "Their feet run to evil, and they make haste to shed blood" (Pr 1:16). 288. Secondly, he touches on the number of injuries they inflict on others when he adds: in their paths, i.e., in their deeds, are ruin; because they crush others by oppressing them: "It is in his mind to destroy" (Is 10:7); and misery, inasmuch as they deprive men of their goods and reduce them to wretchedness: "They send men away naked, taking away their clothes" (Jb 24:7). Yet these two, ruin and misery, can be taken as designating the punishment rather than the sin. Then the sense is: In their paths are ruin and misery, i.e., their deeds, which are signified as paths, lead them to misery. In this case, ruin would refer to the oppressive punishment they suffer for their sins: "They shall be broken as a potter’s vessel" (Is 30:14) and misery, to the punishment of damnation, because they will be refused eternal happiness: "They are miserable, with their hopes set on dead things" (Wis 14:10). 147 289. Thirdly, he shows their persistence in evil, from which men are returned in two ways. In one way by a desire to be at peace with others. Against this he says, the way of peace they have not known, i.e., have not accepted: "Among those who hate peace I was peaceful" (Ps 120:6). In another way by the fear of God; but they neither fear God nor regard man (Lk 18:2). Hence he adds, there is no fear of God before their eyes, i.e., in their plans: "The fear of the Lord casts out sin; for without fear a person cannot be justified" (Si 1:27). This could also refer in a particular way to the Jews who did not believe Christ, i.e., that they have not known the way of peace, name1y, Christ, of Whom it is written: "He is our peace" (Eph 2:14). 290. Then when he says Now we know (v. 19) he explains the text he quoted in three ways: first, by expounding its sense; secondly, its intention, there [v. l9b; n. 294] at that every mouth; thirdly, he gives the reason for his words, there [v. 20; n. 295] at For by the works of the law. 291. It should be noted that the Jews, against whom the Apostle was speaking, could, to excuse themselves, pervert the sense of the text he cited and claim that it referred to the Gentiles, not to the Jews. But the Apostle rejects this, saying: Now we know that whatever the law says, it speaks to those who are under the law, i.e., to whom the Law is given and who profess 148 the Law: "When Moses commanded us a law" (Dt 33:4). But the Gentiles were not under the law; accordingly, the above words pertain to the Jews. 292. Two objections are raised here. The first is that the above words were not taken from the Law but from a psalm. The answer is that the word "Law" is sometimes taken for the entire Old Testament, not for the five books of Moses alone, as in Jn (15:25): "It is to fulfill the word that is written in their law, ‘They hated me without cause,’" which was written in the Old Testament, not in the five books of Moses. This is the way, "Law" is taken here. Again, the Old Testament is sometimes divided into three parts, namely, the Law, the psalms and the prophets, as in Lk (24:44): "That everything written about me in the law of Moses and the prophets and the psalms must be fulfilled." Finally, the entire Old Testament is sometimes divided into two, namely, the Law and the prophets, as in Mt (22:40): "On these two commandments depend all the law and the prophets." In this sense the Psalter is included under the prophets. 293. The second objection is that in the Law, i.e., in the Old Testament, many things are said that pertain to other nations, as is clear in many passages of Isaiah and Jeremiah, where many statements are directed against Babylon and other nations. Therefore, not everything that the Law says speaks to those and about those who are under the Law. The answer is that whatever it says indeterminately seems to be directed to those to whom the Law has been given; but when the Scripture speaks of others it mentions them by name, as when it is written: "The burden of Babylon," "The burden of Tyre," etc. Furthermore, whatever was said against other nations in the Old Testament was 149 somehow directed to the Jews, inasmuch as ill fortune was foretold for their consolation or fear, just as any preacher should say what pertains to his audience, not what pertains to others: "Declare to my people their transgressions" (Is 58:1), as if to say: "not others’ transgressions." 294. Then when he says that every mouth (v. 19b) he states the intent of the text cited, for Sacred Scripture accuses all of injustice for two reasons. First, to suppress their boasting, by which they considered themselves just, as in Lk (18:12): "I fast twice a week." In regard to this he says, that every mouth may be stopped, which presumptuously ascribes justice to itself: "For the mouths of liars will be stopped" (Ps 63:11); "Talk no more so very proudly" (1 Sam 2:3). Secondly, so that recognizing their guilt, they might subject themselves to God as the sick to a physician. Hence he continues: and the whole world may be held accountable [made subject] to God, i.e., not only the Gentiles but the Jews also, after recognizing their guilt: "Shall not my soul be subject to God?" (Ps 62:1). 295. Then when he says For by the works of the law (v. 20) he assigns the reason for these words: first, he assigns the reason; secondly, he explains it, there [v. 20b; n. 298] at Since through the law. 296. First, therefore, he says: The reason no one is just is that no human being will be justified in his sight, i.e., according to His judgment, by works of the law; because, as is stated in Gal (2:2l): "If justification were through the law, then Christ died to no purpose," and in *** (3:5): "Not because of deeds done by us in righteousness, but in virtue of his own mercy he saved us." 150 297. However, a work of the Law is of two kinds: one is peculiar to the Mosaic Law, as the observance of ceremonial precepts; the other is a work of the Law of nature, because it pertains to the natural law, as "Thou shalt not kill, thou shalt not steal," etc. Now some take the Apostle’s words as referring to the first works, namely, that the ceremonials did not confer the grace through which men are made just. But this does not seem to be the Apostle’s intent, for he immediately adds: "since through the law comes knowledge of sin." But it is clear that sins are made known through prohibitions contained in the moral precepts. Consequently, the Apostle intends to say that by no works of the Law, even those commanded by the moral precepts, is man justified in the sense that justice would be caused in him by works, because, as he states below (11:6): "But if it is by grace it is no longer on the basis of works." 298. Then when he says, since through the law, he proves his statement, namely, that the works of the Law do not justify. For the Law is given that man might know what to do and what to avoid: "He has not dealt thus with any other nation; they do not know his ordinances" (Ps 147:20); "The commandment is a lamp and the teaching a light and the way of life" (Pr 6:23). But from the fact that man knows a sin he should avoid as being forbidden, it does not at once follow that he avoids it (because this pertains to the nature of righteousness), because concupiscence subverts the judgment of reason, when it bears on a particular moral action as performable. Consequently, the Law is not enough to make one just; another remedy is needed to suppress concupiscence. 299. After showing that Jews and gentiles are equal as far as the state of previous guilt is concerned [n. 274], the Apostle now shows that they are also equal as far as the state of subsequent grace is concerned. In regard to this he does three things: first, he states his teaching; secondly, he explains something he had presupposed, there [v. 29; n. 318] at Or is God the God of the Jews only?; thirdly, he answers an objection, there [v. 31; n. 321] at Do we therefore destroy the law? 152 In regard to the first he does three things: first, he states his teaching; secondly, he manifests it, there [v. 22c; n. 304] at There is no distinction; thirdly, he draws the intended conclusion, there [v. 27; n. 313] at Where therefore is your glorying? In regard to the first he does three things: first, he states the relation between justice and the law; secondly, he gives the cause of justice, there [v. 22; n. 302] at the justice of God; thirdly, he shows that such justice is available to all, there [v. 22b; n. 303] at in all. 300. First, he sets down a twofold comparison or relation of justice to the Law [n. 301]. The first is that it is not caused by the Law. This is what he says: It has been stated that in times past God’s justice could not exist in virtue of the works of the Law, either because the just one himself fulfills the promises about men’s justification: "For I tell you that Christ became a servant to the circumcised to show God’s truthfulness, in order to confirm the promises given to the patriarchs" (Rom 15:8). Or, rather, God’s justice, by which a person is justified by God, of which it says below: "not knowing the justice of God" (Rom 10:3). This justice of God, I say, has been manifested now, i.e., in the time of grace, by the teachings of Christ, by his miracles, as well as by the evidence of the fact, inasmuch as it is evident that many have been divinely made just. And this apart from the Law, i.e., without the Law causing righteousness: "You are severed from Christ, you who had 153 been justified by the Law; you have fallen away from grace" (Gal 5:4); "Soon my salvation will come, and my justice will be revealed" (Is 56:1). 301. But lest anyone suppose that this justice is contrary to the Law, secondly, he sets down another relation of justice to the Law when he says: although the law and the prophets bear witness to it. The Law bears witness to Christ’s justice by foretelling and prefiguring it: "If you believed Moses, you would believe me, for he wrote of me" (Jn 5:46); and also by its effect, for, since it could not justify, it bore witness that justice was to be sought elsewhere. The prophets bore witness by foretelling it: "To him all the prophets bear witness" (Ac 10:43). 302. Then he assigns the cause of this justice, and says the justice of God through the faith of Christ Jesus, i.e., which he delivered: "Looking to Jesus the perfecter of our faith" (Heb 12:2); or which is held concerning Him: "Because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved" (Rom 10:9). God’s justice is said to exist through faith in Christ Jesus, not as though by faith we merit being justified, as if faith exists from ourselves and through it we merit God’s justice, as the Pelagians assert; but because in the very justification, by which we are made just by God, the first motion of the mind toward God is through faith: "Whoever would draw near to God must believe" (Heb 11:6). Hence faith, as the first part of justice, is given to us by God: "By grace you have been saved through faith; and this is not your own doing; for it is the gift of God" (Eph 2:8). 154 But this faith, out of which justice exists, is not the unformed faith about which James 2(:26) says, "Faith without works is dead," but it is faith formed by charity, about which Gal 5(:6) says, "For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision is of any avail, but faith [working through love]," through which Christ dwells in us; "that Christ may dwell in your hearts through faith" (Eph 3:17), which does not happen without charity: "He who abides in love abides in God and God in him" (1 Jn 4:16). This is the faith about which Acts 15(:9) says, "He cleansed their hearts by faith," a cleansing that does not occur without charity: "Love covers all offenses" (Pr 10:12). 303. And lest anyone suppose that only the Jews are made just through this faith, third, he shows that this justice is common, when he adds in all. In other words this justice is in the heart, not in fleshly observances, about which Hebrews 9(:10) says that carnal observances were directed to the justification of the flesh, being regulations for the body and imposed until the time of reformation. And over all, because it transcends human power and merit: "Not that we are sufficient of ourselves to claim anything as coming from us" (2Cor 3:5). He adds, who believe in him, which refers to the living faith, by which man is justified, as has been said. 304. Then when he says for there is no distinction, he manifests what he had said: first, in regard to the common availability of justice; secondly, as to its cause, there [v. 24; n. 306] at justified by grace; thirdly, as to its manifestation, there [v. 25b; n. 310] at for the manifestation. 305. First, therefore, he says: It has been stated that the righteousness of God is in all and above all who believe in Christ. For in this matter there is no distinction between 155 Jew and Gentile: "In Christ Jesus there is not Gentile and Jew" (Col 3:11), namely [a Jew] who has some distinction, as though the Jew does not need to be made just by God as the Gentile does. Since all have sinned, as has been shown above: "All we like sheep have gone astray" (Is 53:6) and for this reason need the glory of God, i.e., the justification that redounds to God’s glory. Furthermore, man should not ascribe this glory to himself: "Not to us, O Lord, not to us, but to thy name give glory" (Ps 115:1); "Give glory to God" (Ps 66:2). 306. Consequently, because all have sinned and cannot of themselves be justified, they need some other cause to make them just. This cause he indicates when he continues, being justified. First [cf. n. 307], he shows that such justification exists without the Law, i.e., that it does not come from the works of the Law, when he says being justified freely [gratis], i.e., without the merit of previous works: "You were sold for nothing and you shall be redeemed without money" (Is 52:3). And this is by his grace, namely, God’s, to whom glory is due on this account: "By the grace of God I am what I am" (1 Cor 15:10). 307. Secondly, he shows what is the cause of justification. First [cf. n. 308ff.], he discloses the cause itself, when he says, through redemption. For as is stated in John 8(:34), "Everyone who commits sin is a slave of sin." From this slavery a man is redeemed, if he makes satisfaction for sin. For example, if a man owes a king a fine for some guilty action, the one who paid the fine would be said to have redeemed him from the debt. Now, this debt involved the whole human race, which was infected by the sin of the first parent. Hence no other person could satisfy for the sin of the entire human race except Christ alone, who was immune from all sin. 156 Hence he adds, which is in Christ Jesus. As if to say: in no other could there be redemption: "Not with perishable things, such as silver and gold" (1 Pt 1:18). 308. Secondly, he shows whence this redemption has efficacy, when he says whom God put forward as an expiation. For Christ’s satisfaction was efficacious for justifying and redeeming by the fact that God had assigned him to this in his plan, which he designates when he says whom God put forward as an expiation: "According to the purpose of him who accomplishes all things according to the counsel of his will" (Eph 1:11). Or put forward, that is, he put [him] forward for all, because the human race had no way of making satisfaction unless God himself gave them a redeemer and satisfier: "He sent redemption to his people" (Ps 111:9). And so, while making satisfaction, he redeems us from the debt of sin and obtains pardon for our sins, which the Psalmist begged: "Be propitious to our sins" (Ps 79:9); and this is why he calls him a propitiation. Propitiation. As a figure of this it was commanded in Exodus (25:17) that a propitiatory [seat], i.e., Christ, be placed on the ark, i.e., the Church. 369. Thirdly, he indicates how the effect of redemption reached us, when he says, by faith in his blood, i.e., faith concerning his blood poured out for us. For in order to satisfy for us, it was fitting that he undergo the penalty of death for us, a penalty man had incurred by sin, as indicated in Genesis 2(:17), "In the day that you eat of it you shall die." Hence 1Peter 3(:18) states, "For Christ also died for sins once for all." This death of Christ is applied to us through faith, by which we believe that the world has been redeemed by His death: "I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me 157 and gave himself for me" (Gal 2:20). For even among men payment made by one man does not benefit another, unless [that other] considers it valid. And so it is clear how there is justification through faith in Jesus Christ, as has been stated above. 310. But because he had stated above [n. 300] that God’s justice is manifested now, he considers this manifestation [n. 311ff]. First, he touches on the manner of this manifestation, saying for the manifestation. As if to say: I say that we are justified by the redemption of Christ and by faith in his blood, for the manifestation of his justice, i.e., to the end that God might show his justice, and this because of the remission of former sins. For in remitting former sins, which the Law could not remit or men by their own power sufficiently guard against, God showed that the justice by which they are made just by God is necessary for men. But only through the blood of Christ could sins both present and past be remitted, because the power of Christ’s blood works through man’s faith, which the men who lived before his passion had, just as we have: "Since we have the same spirit of faith . . . we too believe" (2 Cor 14:13). Hence another way of reading it is: for the remission of the sins of those men who preceded the passion of Christ: "He will tread our iniquities under foot and he will cast all our sins into the depth of the sea" (Mic 7:19). 311. Secondly, he shows the time of its manifestation, when he adds: in the forbearance of God, for the manifestation of his justice in this time. As if to say: former sins before the passion of Christ were in the forbearance of God as, so to speak, under a certain divine support [sustinentia], because he neither damned believers and penitents 158 for them nor completely absolved them, in the sense that, the sins notwithstanding, they might enter into glory. Or, according to another reading, it can mean that the saintly fathers themselves were in God’s forbearance, because they were detained in limbo, not suffering sensible pain but waiting to enter into glory through the passion of Christ: "Wait for the forbearance of God" (Sir 2:3). For this purpose, I say, previous sins and the ancient fathers were in the forbearance of God, namely to for the manifestation of his justice in this time, i.e., that in this time of grace he might manifest his justice perfectly by granting full remission of sins: "Now is the acceptable time; now is the day of salvation" (2 Cor 6:2). And this is what he had said above, namely that God’s justice is now manifest. Up to this present time former sins had be in the forbearance of God, in order to convince man of his lack of knowledge, since in the time of the law of nature man fell into errors and base sins; and of his lack of power, since after the written law, which gave knowledge of sin, man still sinned through weakness. 312. Thirdly, he shows that by remitting sins God’s justice is shown, whether it be taken as the justice of God by which he himself is just or as the justice by which he justifies others. Hence he continues: that he himself may be just, i.e., that by remitting sins God may appear to be just in himself, both because he remitted sins as he had promised and because it belongs to God’s justice to destroy sins by leading men back to his justice: "The Lord is righteous, he loves righteous deeds" (Ps 11:7). 159 19 Cf. n. 274, 299, and 304. And also the justifier of him who is of the faith of Jesus Christ, i.e., who approaches God through faith in Jesus Christ: "Whoever would draw near to God must believe" (Heb 11:6). After showing that Jews have no advantage over the Gentiles either in regard to sin or to righteousness,19 he now presents the intended conclusion, by rejecting the boasts whereby they preferred themselves to the Gentiles. He does three things. First, he proposes that this boasting be excluded; secondly, the reason for this exclusion, there [v. 27b; n. 315] at by what law?; thirdly, the way it is excluded, there [v. 28; n. 317] at For we judge. 160 20 RSV Ps 68:30. The Hebrew text of this verse is obscure. 314. In regard to the first he does two things. First, he raises a question: Inasmuch as you, 0 Jew, are under sin just as the Gentile, and the Gentile is made just by faith just as you are, then what becomes of your boasting, whereby you take glory in the Law, as stated above, and on this ground wish to prefer yourself to the Gentile? "Your boasting is not good" (1 Cor 5:6); "Let us have no self-conceit, envying one another," (Gal 5:26). Secondly, he answers this, saying, it is excluded, i.e., is taken away: "The glory has been taken away from Israel" (1 Sam 4:21); "I will change their glory into shame" (Hos 4:7). Or excluded, i.e., expressly manifested. For the Jews gloried in the glory and worship of the one God, and he says that their glory was excluded, i.e., pressed out [expressam] by Christ, as artists who press out an image in silver are called "excludors," in accord with Ps 67:31, "That they might exclude those who were tried by silver."20 But the first meaning is more literal. 315. Then when he says by what law, he states the cause of this exclusion. Since the Jews’ boasting was about the Law, as has been stated above, it seemed that their boasting had to be excluded by something of the same genre, i.e., by some law. Therefore, he asks on what is their boasting to be excluded? For someone might suppose that the Apostle means their boasting was excluded by certain legal precepts which commanded greater works. That is why he asks, on the principle of works? As if to say: Do I say that their boasting has been excluded by some law of works? But he answers: No, but by the law of faith. 161 So it is plain that the Apostle alludes here to two laws, that of works and that of faith. At first glance it would seem that by the law of works is meant the Old Law and by the law of faith the New Law, through which the Gentile is made equal to the Jew. 316. But there is some doubt about this distinction. For even in the Old Law faith was necessary, just as it is in the New: "You who fear the Lord believe him" (Sir 2:8); "I believed; therefore I have spoken" (Ps l16:l0). And indeed, works are required in the New Law, namely, the works of certain sacraments, as commanded in Luke 22(:19), "Do this in memory of me" and of moral observances: "Be doers of the word and not hearers only" (Jas 1:22). Consequently, it should be said that what he calls the law of works is the law outwardly presented and written, through which men’s external works are directed, when it prescribes what he ought to do and forbids what ought to be avoided. But what he calls the law of faith is the law inwardly written, through which are directed not only external works but even the very motions of the heart, among which the act of faith is first: "Man believes with his heart" (Rom 10:10). Of this second law he speaks below (8:2): "The law of the spirit of life in Christ Jesus." 317. Then when he says, For we hold, he shows how the Jews’ boasting is excluded by the law of faith, saying: For we apostles, being taught the truth by Christ, hold that a man, whomsoever he be, whether Jew or Gentile, is justified by faith: "He cleansed their hearts by faith" (Ac 15:9). And this apart from the works of the law. Not only without the ceremonial works, which did not confer grace but only signified it, but also without the works of the moral precepts, as stated in Titus 3(:5), "Not because of deeds done by us in righteousness." This, of course, means without 162 works prior to becoming just, but not without works following it, because, as is stated in Jas (2:26): "Faith without works," i.e., subsequent works, "is dead," and, consequently, cannot justify. 318. Then when he says Or is God the God of the Jews only?, he manifests something he had presupposed, namely, that the righteousness of faith stands in the same common relation to all. He had previously explained this with a reason based on the material cause, when he stated above (v. 23) that "all have sinned and need the glory of God," i.e., they are sinners, who need to be made just by the grace of God. But a proof based solely on the material cause is not enough, because matter is not moved to a form by itself without an agent cause. Accordingly, he now presents a proof based on the agent cause, i.e., the justifier, who is God: "It is God who justifies" (Rom 8:33). Now it is manifest that our God by justifying saves those whose God he is, according to Ps 68(:20), "Our God is a God of salvation." But he is the God not of the Jews only but of the Gentiles also; therefore, he justifies both. 319. On this point he does three things. First, he raises a question concerning the Jews, when he says, Is God the God of Jews only? It might seem that he is, because it says in Exodus 5(:3), "The God of the Hebrews called us." Hence it must be said that he was the God of the Jews only by the special worship paid to God by them; hence it is stated in Ps 76 (v.1): "In Judah God is known"; yet he was the God of all by his common reign over all things, as is stated in Ps 47(:8), "God is king of all the earth." 163 Secondly, he raises the question on the side of the Gentiles, saying: Is he not God of the Gentiles also? and he answers: Yes, of Gentiles also, whom he governs and rules: "Who would not fear thee, O king of the nations?" (Jer 10:7). Thirdly, there at for God indeed is one, he manifests what he had said with a sign, as if to say: It is clear that he is the God not only of the Jews but also of the Gentiles, for God indeed is one and he will justify the circumcised, i.e., the Jews, from faith, as is said in Galatians 5(:6), "In Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision is of any avail." 320. According to the Gloss, "from faith" [ex fide] and "by faith" [per fidem] are exactly the same. However, a slight difference can be noted. For the preposition "from" [ex] sometimes designates a remote cause, while the preposition "through" [per] designates a nearer cause. Therefore, the Jews are said to be justified "from" faith because faith was the first cause from which circumcision and the other sacraments of the Law proceeded; thus, faith justified the Jews as a primary cause through intermediate causes. But the Gentiles are justified by faith itself immediately. 321. Then when he says Do we therefore overthrow he excludes an objection. For someone might claim that he is overthrowing the aforementioned Law; therefore, he asks: Do we therefore overthrow the law by faith, inasmuch as we say that men are justified without the works of the Law? He answers: By no means! in keeping with Matt 5(:18), "Not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the law." Rather, he adds: On the contrary, we uphold the law, i.e., by faith we complete and fulfill the Law, as Matt 5(:17) says, "I have come not to abolish the law but to fulfill it." 164 This is true as regards the ceremonial precepts because, being figures, they were upheld and fulfilled by the fact that the truth signified by them is shown forth in the faith of Christ. This is also true as regards the moral precepts, because the faith of Christ confers the help of grace to fulfill the moral precepts of the Law and even adds special counsels, through which the moral precepts are more safely and securely kept. 165 |